I don't really like to get into arguments about gender in Bible translation. I just want some honesty in debates. And the honesty I want is for people who are arguing for gender inclusivity to recognise that the Greek (that's where my interest lies here) uses masculine language in a way that is inclusive of feminine objects. This is not unique to Greek, it doesn't (in my opinion) reveal some deep-seated masculinist program of the Greek language, it's just a feature of grammatical gender linked to real gender.
So, for example, αδελφοι does not 'mean' "brothers and sisters". It would be more accurate to say it 'means' "brothers" (when referring to a group of exclusively male siblings), and "brothers and sisters" (when referring to a group of mixed-gender siblings).
It's no problem to recognise this, just as it shouldn't be a problem to recognise that historically in English "Man" and "Mankind" have been gender-inclusive terms. The fact that contemporary English-speakers now regard them as gender-exclusive terms shouldn't blind us to the fact that this is a shift in our own language.
Insisting that αδελφοι means "brothers and sisters", and ανθρωπος always means "human being" with no gender marking, is misrepresenting the Greek language, even when these are accurate translations of the contextual meaning of the words.